So, lets make an example:
Buyer A.B, Amsterdam, NL, buys Goods, CIF Rotterdam Port, from Vendor Ltd., Albany, NY.
On-Shore-Carrier Ltd. bring Goods to NY Port and loads onto the vessel.
Vendor Ltd.. gives a shipping order to Maersk, to bring the Goods from FOB NY Port to Amesterdam.
Maersk issues a FPD B/L (payable at destination) with the Shipper reading "Vendor A.B.", the Consignee "Buyer A.B.", and the Notify#1 "Broker A.B.". 3/3 Original B/L are sent to Vendor Ltd.
Vendor Ltd. sends 1/3 Original B/L to Buyer A.B., who will endorse the B/L for release of cargo to Broker A.B.
Maersk sends the freight invoice to Broker A.B., the invoice has to be paid for release of cargo (to the Cnee, or Broker, or whoever has an endorsed B/L)
Broker A.B. pays the invoice, effects clearance through customs, conveys the cargo to Amsterdam, and then invoices to Vendor Ltd. the. (i) the Maersk shipping cost, and to Buyer A.B. (ii) celarance, and (iii) conveyance to Amsterdam.
Is that rright?
And now Broker A.B. refuses to pay the freight until Buyer A.B. has endorsed the B/L? Doesn't really matter because he needs both effected payment AND the endorsement to take over the cargo, so what's the big deal?
Back to translation, I'm sticking with
There were difficulites with XY who wanted the endorsed B/L on hand before settling the sea freight charges.