Just wondering if the decree is recent? I.e., is it a historical document or is it one from the present day? I have seldom actually read a divorce decree, so for all I know, this could be a common wording in them. The thing is, though, that even disregarding the legal baroque aspect, it makes no sense to me.
If if it had said
"... decreed as follows by this Court by the....and according to the Statute in such case made and provided:"
(i.e. without repeating the verbs)
it would have made so much more sense. I'm wondering if it might just be an revision error on the part of the court, whereby two ways of wording the same thing got mushed together.
@ wienergriessler, did you see multiple instances of this full wording since 1857 or just one from 1857?