| Comment | @Alex:
"Or are you saying that you've actually read all 16,800,000 Google entries for "applies for" and checked how many of them were used in the sense of "für jmdn./etw. gelten"?!?"
No, of course I didn't do that and, no, Alex, I am obviously not saying that... how literal do I have to be?
Of course I am not referring to the millions of random hits you speak of - read my contribution again, I am talking about the precise meaning in question here: quote: "...hits for "applies for", with exactly the meaning that Ich claims doesn't exist"
Carry out a sensible search for "applies for him/me" (like I suggested) - using "him/me" narrows down the search a lot - you will see plenty of usage in the sense of "für jmdn./etw. gelten". "Applies to him/me" gets more hits, admittedly, but the variant with "for" does exist, and (I repeat) with precisely the meaning we are discussing here!
"And of course "the construction is perfectly normal English" - but that wasn't the issue here, but its usage."
Again, I think you are missing the point here, not I. Of course I am saying that it is perfectly normal English in the usage we are discussing here! Despite what you imply here (telling me what the "issue" is), I am not just some fool who is claiming that the verb "apply" can go with the preposition "for" - I am indeed talking about the precise usage under debate here.
"As far as I'm concerned, I'll trust a printed dictionary over anything you'd find on the net, any given time."
...and if it's not in a dictionary and isn't found by your flawed Internet searching, then it's not correct and isn't an acceptable usage, no matter what natives say?
@English speakers - what do you think? Does this usage exist or not? Is the LEO entry correct or not?
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